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Matthew Johnson wrote:
> In article <4201715C-FC4E-6E32-9D7B-715D5B8150A0@srcbs.org>,
> lsenders@hotmail.com says...
>
> >Tracy Hall wrote:
>
> >> Loren, given the context, do you mean to imply that those
> >> who believe in free will are as apostate as those who
> >> participate in the terrible behaviors listed here by
> >> Paul, that those who believe in free will are people who
> >> "resist the truth," have "corrupt minds," and are
> >> "reprobate concerning the faith?"
>
> [snip]
>
> >As for the theology of "free will," yes, I find the system
> >to be anti-Biblical, therefore, as you say, apostate.
>
> And that is where you are not only in serious error, but
> sinfully so, since you persist in even slandering those who
> hold the right faith.
>
Matthew thinks it is not an important enough matter to substantiate any
claim, only that he not remain silent, and what he does write to be
appear to be a complete answer to what was written, so confident is he
of his own authority.

I have yet to have it explaned _plainly_ how the normal reading of Rom
3:10 and following does not depend upon the presupposition of the
doctrine of total depravity. Nor has it ever been explain, _plainly_
how Rom 8 & 9 does NOT put forth the fact that all men are dependent
upon the *fore* knowledge of God, the calling of God, the
*pre*destinating of God to conform the elect to the image of His Son.
Pray tell, how is the power of "free-will" proved by the endeavoring
of the Spirit? (8:26-27) Do my oponents equate "free-will" with
leading of the Spirit? Does man "freely" choose to emply the
impersonal power of the Spirit to gain justification? Rather Paul
argues that it was "freely given" and that "it is God who justifies."
Where is "free-will" herein then taught?

In Rom 9:3 Paul "wishes" that he could cause an effect on the
"free-will" of his fellow Jews, but obviously concludes that though
they were adopted "as sons," that the "glory", the "covenants' and the
"Law", the temple system of "sacrifice" and atonement, and the
"promises" made to the "fathers", despite all these things, they were
not able to freely activate righteousness. Rather, slaves to sin, they
blindly sought a righteousness which was "without knowledge" even
though they were "pursuing a law of righteousness."


> > But just because an individual believes in what he
> >defines "free will," does not necessitate apostacy.
>
> At last, a very overdue admission!

Over due? Long before you ever came on the scene, I have separated
theological position from actual experience.
>
> > My argument is against theological systems which try t