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Actually, I believe the correct translation for this verse is more
like:

'Amen, I say to you, before the day is through, you will be with me in
the kingdom of my father.'

Having a right understanding of this encounter is important for
understanding Catholic doctrine regarding Pergatory. Why? We see it
through revelation. We don't say that Jesus went to hell, not limbo,
or vice-versa, or that he did not go to Heaven. We recognize that
after his death, he went everywhere.

Consider the testimony of Peter in 1 Peter 3:19. When Peter talks to
spirits in prison, he does so in recognition of the exchange between
Jesus and the repentant thief. But to fully understand the
significance of what is going on here, you have to recognize, as did
Peter and Jesus, that something very special had taken place in the
thief on the cross, something that had its source external to the thief
himself. Note elsewhere we see the stage of the crucifixion being one
where everyone who had voice was condemning Christ -- even the thief in
question. What do you suppose was the cause of the sudden change of
heart we see now? By what reason did the thief come to say what he
did? Jesus's reply to the thief was not merely to the thief himself,
but rather to those spirits who were making themselves manifest to
Christ through the thief.

Note that we see Jesus in his resurrection ministry, in his mystical
body, doing for men the very same things revelation tells us he did in
the three days after his death. The souls of those men who had
particpated in Jesus's crucifixion, and the two disciples Jesus
encountered on thier journey home -- they were in thier own types of
prisons; they suffered thier own deaths. But consider also the
disciples Jesus took to the Father in the upper room. These all are
the reason for his resurrection ministry, and all of these things were
established in the heavenly kingdoms before the resurrected Lord was
seen by man, in the first day, and through three.

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In article , sutherlandrobert@shaw.ca
says...

>Matthew Johnson:
>
>>You wrote in consideration of Job 2:10: "It is also of interest to
>note
>>that even if "at the hand of" _did_ imply authorship, Job did _not_
>say
>>"shall we not receive evil at the hand of God". The _departure_ from
>>parallelism looks deliberate. It could very well be to deny that God
>is
>>the author of evil."
>
>>How would you reconcile your interpretation with Job 12: